RE: frame-relay map and IPV6? posted 11/02/2006
- Subject: RE: frame-relay map and IPV6?
- From: "Scott Morris" <swm@xxxxxxxxxx>
- Date: Thu, 2 Nov 2006 15:09:00 -0500
- In-reply-to: <454A3D7B.firstname.lastname@example.org>
- Organization: Emanon.com, Inc.
- Thread-index: Acb+ufiblnqM7uXaThCPv9drgERD1wAAKeFQ
You need to map whatever IPv6 addresses that you need to reach! In short,
if you aren't going to both mapping all the addresses, why configure them on
the interface? Decoration?
Yup, map 'em all.
Scott Morris, CCIE4 (R&S/ISP-Dial/Security/Service Provider) #4713, JNCIE
#153, CISSP, et al.
IPExpert VP - Curriculum Development
IPExpert Sr. Technical Instructor
From: nobody@xxxxxxxxxxxxxx [mailto:nobody@xxxxxxxxxxxxxx] On Behalf Of
Sent: Thursday, November 02, 2006 1:48 PM
Subject: frame-relay map and IPV6?
I have a question about frame-relay map statements and IPv6.
If I am asked to configure IPv6 over a frame-relay cloud, do I have to
configure only the frame-relay map statements for site-local addresses or do
I have to configure mapping statements for link-local addresses as well? (if
nothing special mentioned in the question)
In short: mapping statements only for the unique addresses or for unique and
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