If you have just one area in your ospf network it does not have to be area 0
> -----Original Message-----
> From: nobody@xxxxxxxxxxxxxx [mailto:nobody@xxxxxxxxxxxxxx]On Behalf Of
> Asim Khan
> Sent: Friday, August 02, 2002 12:38 PM
> To: ccielab@xxxxxxxxxxxxxx
> Subject: Area 0
>
>
> Hi All,
>
> I have a quick question, while reading Bruce Caslow I
> came across the following statement (page 387)
> "Every valid OSPF configuration must have an area 0,
> so if you use only single OSPF area for your entire
> network, it must be area 0".
>
> Whereas in Jeff Doyle volume 1 on page 517, it is
> written that "Single area does not have to be area 0".
>
> So which one is correct?
>
> Regards.
>
> Asim Khan
>
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